← Theology course path Level 8 · Unit-end quiz Unit quiz: Doctrine and Systematic Reasoning: Trinity, Christology, Atonement, the Human Person and the Last Things Check understanding, separately from reading 5 questions · 80% to pass · no timer. This quiz checks the lessons in this unit. These authored questions assess recognition and application of the taught distinctions, not professional qualification. You may review the lessons and retry. Repeat attempts reuse the question bank; a remembered answer is not proof of transfer to a new situation.
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Question 1
A student summarises the Church's trinitarian doctrine as: 'There is one God, and God is three persons, so strictly speaking God is a community of three divine beings who are perfectly united in will.' Which part of that statement is defined doctrine and which part exceeds what the Church has defined? Defined: there is one God, and in the one divine substance there are three really distinct persons, Father, Son and Holy Spirit; the Catechism states that we do not confess three Gods but one God in three persons, the 'consubstantial Trinity' (CCC 253), and that each of the persons is the divine substance, essence or nature, quoting the Fourth Lateran Council. Exceeding the definition: describing the three persons as 'a community of three divine beings' or grounding their unity chiefly in a shared will. A unity of will is what the Church denies, since that is the Arian and semi-Arian account of the Son's union with the Father; the unity is of substance. Whether a social or communitarian analogy best expresses the triune life is a theological question the Church has left open, and it may be explored only so long as it does not compromise the oneness of the divine essence. The whole statement is orthodox: because the Church teaches that the three persons are distinct, and because Scripture calls the disciples to be one as the Father and Son are one, the communion of three divine beings is the correct rendering of the doctrine.Question 2
Two theological students disagree about Christ's human knowledge. The first says the Church has defined that Christ's human intellect enjoyed the beatific vision from the first moment of his conception, so he knew all things at all times as man. The second says that is a theological position rather than a definition, and that the question is complicated by passages such as Mark 13:32. Who has the levels right, and what does the Church actually require? The first has the levels right: because the Church has always taught that Christ's human knowledge was unlimited, positions that leave him ignorant of some things are excluded as a revival of the older adoptionist and Nestorian errors, so the only Catholic position is the maximal one. The second has the levels right. What the Church requires is the Chalcedonian and Constantinopolitan settlement: one person, two natures, unmixed and unconfused; two natural wills and two natural operations, 'the divine and the human' (Constantinople III, Definition of Faith, 681); and that the Son's human nature is genuinely human. It defines that Christ is one person, not two, and that his human will is real and not absorbed. What it has not done by an ecumenical definition is settle the precise extent of Christ's human knowledge. The position that his human intellect had the direct vision of God, so that he knew everything, is the dominant scholastic teaching (Thomas's treatment of Christ's knowledge in Summa Theologiae III, q. 10 argues for a beatific knowledge in his soul), and it has been supported by magisterial acts of a non-definitional kind; but the exegetical difficulty of Mark 13:32 and the Church's encouragement of careful exegesis mean a Catholic may hold a more nuanced account without denying anything defined, provided that the one-person and two-natures grammar is preserved.Question 3
A retreat director says: 'The good news is that Jesus did not have to die. God accepted him in place of us without any demand for payment, so the whole language of satisfaction and sacrifice is a medieval distortion.' Assess this claim against the Church's defined teaching. It is a distortion of the Church's teaching, though it gestures at one true point. The true point is that the initiative is God's: salvation flows from God's love, and the Catechism quotes 2 Corinthians 5:19, 'God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself' (CCC 620), so the cross is not a human appeasement of a hostile deity. But the claim that sacrifice and satisfaction are medieval accretions is contradicted by the Council of Trent and by the Catechism: Trent's decree on justification says Christ 'merited Justification for us by His most holy Passion on the wood of the cross, and made satisfaction for us unto God the Father', and the Catechism restates it as 'the unique and definitive sacrifice' which 'completes and surpasses all other sacrifices' (CCC 613-614) and, citing Trent's sentence, says Jesus 'atoned for our faults and made satisfaction for our sins to the Father'. What is true is that the *explanation* of how the cross effects reconciliation has never been defined, and theories have varied widely. The claim is right in substance: because the Church has never defined a mechanism of atonement, a Catholic is free to conclude that the cross was a demonstration of love that made no objective payment, and the biblical language of sacrifice is metaphor that the Church has tolerated rather than taught.Question 4
A catechist tells her class that the Church 'has never said anything about how many first parents there were, because that is a matter for science'. What is wrong with the statement, and what is the accurate three-level account of the question of human origins? Nothing is wrong: because the Church distinguished the body's origin from the soul's in Humani Generis 36 and encouraged research into evolution, it treats the question of human ancestry as entirely scientific, so a Catholic may hold any account of human origins provided the soul is created by God. The statement is wrong as history of the magisterium. Pius XII's Humani Generis 37 addressed polygenism directly, saying that the faithful 'by no means enjoy such liberty' to hold that Adam 'represents a certain number of first parents', because 'it is in no way apparent how such an opinion can be reconciled' with the Church's doctrine that original sin proceeds from a sin actually committed by an individual Adam and is transmitted by generation. The accurate three-level account is: (1) defined doctrine, human beings are made in God's image, the person is a unity of body and soul, original sin is transmitted and not merely imitated (Trent, Session V, canons 1-2), and each human soul is created immediately by God (Humani Generis 36); (2) authoritative teaching that is not a solemn definition, the restriction on polygenism, argued from the coherence of the doctrine of original sin; (3) open questions, the biological history of the human body, permitted for investigation since 1950 and described by John Paul II in 1996 as 'more than a hypothesis' with the caution that there are 'several theories of evolution', and the moment and manner of the infusion of the soul.Score this attempt
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